Online MCQS Preparation (MCAT Biology Book-1) Chapter No.5

I. In the binomial system of taxonomy, developed during the 18th century by C. Linnaeus, the first word of an organism's name (e.g., Homo sapiens) is its

(A) Species

(B) Genus 

(C) Race

(D) Family

2. The common name of Allium cepa is

(A) Piyaz

(B) Bathu

(C) Amaltas

(D) Chana

3. Choose the correct order.

(A) Phylum — Class — Order — Family — Genus — Species

(B) Class — Phylum — Order — Family — Genus — Species

(C) Phylum — Order — Class — Family — Genus — Species

(D) Phylum — Class — Order — Family — Species — Genus

4. Highest group in classification is

(A) Class

(B) Species

(C) Order

(D) Phylum

5. The system of classification proposed by Robert Whittekar is based on different levels of cellular organization associated with three principal mode of nutrition.

(A) two

(B) three

(C) four

(D) five

6. In general appearance cubical phages are regular solid or icosahedral having

(A) 10 faces

(B) 15 faces

(C) 20 faces

(D) 21 faces

7. In the five-kingdom system of classification developed by Robert Whittaker, member of the kingdom Plantae are autotrophic, eukaryotic, and

(A) Multicellular

(B) Motile

(C) Either unicellular or multicellular

(D) Have sexual reproduction

8. Five kingdom system of classification proposed by Margulis and Schawartz is not based on.

(A) Genetic

(B) Cellular organization 

(C) Nucleic acid

(D) Mode of nutrition

9. Viruses are chemically

(A) Nucleic acid

(B) Carbohydrates

(C) Nucleoprotein

(D)  Proteins

10. Plant viruses contain RNA

(A) Always

(B) Mostly

(C) Rarely

(D) Never

11. Animal viruses contain DNA

(A) Always

(B) Mostly

(C) Rarely

(D) Never

12. Viruses are believed to be living because

(A) They can grow & multiply within the host

(B) They have nucleic acid

(C) They can undergo mutation

(D) All of the above

13. Viruses are believed to be non-living because

(A) They are not cellular

(B) They cannot multiply outside the host

(C) They can be crystalized

(D) All of the above

14. The hereditary material in viruses may be

(A) DNA

(B) RNA

(C) DNA or RNA

(D) Both DNA and RNA

15. The fact that a virus can be transmitted from an infected organism to a healthy organism of the same kind was demonstrated by lwanowsky in

(A) 1892

(B) 1931

(C) 1782

(D) 1872

16. The virus particle consists of proteins and

(A) DNA

(B) RNA

(C) Nucleic acid

(D) Acetic acid

17. Viruses resemble other living things because they

(A) Circulate

(B) Move

(C) Reproduce

(D) Arc crystalline

18. Who isolated viruses from the host tobacco cell in 1935?

(A) W.M. Stanley

(B) lwanowsky

(C) Lederberg

(D) Morgan

19. Transmission of virus was first discovered by

(A) Griffith

(B) E. Tatum

(C) lwanowsky

(D) W.M. Stanely

20. The nucleic acid of becteriophages is mostly

(A) tRNA

 (C) RNA

(B) DNA

 (D) rRN A

21. Which one of the following is the genetic substance in viruses?

(A) Proteins

(B) Nucleic acid

(C) Proteins and nucleic acid

(D) Neither proteins nor nucleic acid

22. A filter paper with a pore size ranging from 15nm —450nm allows which one of the following to pass through

(A) Virus

(B) Bacteria

(C) Protozoa

(D) Yeasts

23. Which one of the following has no cellular organization in spite of being living?

(A) Bacteria

(B) Viruses

(C) Cyanobacteria

(D) Algae

24. What is the range of size in virus?

(A) 1 Onm to 350nm

(B) 15nm to 450nm

(C) 20nm to 450nm

(D) 30nm to 450nm

25. The biological classification of corn Poaceae is its

(A) Order

(B) Family

(C) Class

(D) Genus

26. A viron is a

(A) Virus

(B) Viral protein

(C) Viral lysozyme

(D) Viral gene

27. An isolated virus is not considered living, since it

(A) separates into two inert parts

(B) cannot metabolize

(C) rapidly looses its genome chemically inert

(D) is coated with an air tight shield

28. Which one of the following reproduces only in the host cell?

(A) Bacteria

(B) Virus

(C) Nostoc

(D) Fungus

29. Process in which the genetic material shifted from one bacterium to another through a bacterio phage is called

(A) A sexual reproduction

(B) Conjugation

(C) Transformation

(D) Transduction

30. A bacteriophage is composed of

(A) DNA and RNA

(B) DNA and Ribose

(C) DNA and proteins

(D) Proteins and RNA

31. In the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage, the host DNA is

(A) replicated

(B) turned off by a protein coat

(C) digested into its nucleotides

(D) turned on by removal of a protein coat

32. In the lysogenic cycle, the DNA of a bacteriophage

(A) joins the bacterial chromosome.

(B) attaches to the inner surface of the host membrane.

(C) is immediately degraded when it enters the host.

(D) goes directly to the host's ribosome for translation.

33. Temperature phage may exist as

(A) Prophage

(B) Capsid

(C) Virioid

(D) Retrovirus

34. The disease caused by retroviruses is

(A) Malaria 

(B) Typhoid

(C) Cholera

(D) AIDS

35. The DNA of the bacterium is found present in a distinct nuclear region called

(A) Nucleolus

(B) Centrosome

(C) Nucleoid

(D) Nucleus

36. Which one of he following is not a viral disease?

(A) Influenza

(B) Tuberculosis

(C) Measles

(D) Common cold

37. Which of the following causes small pox?

(A) Virus

(B) Fungus

(C) Protozoa

(D) Bacteria

38. Which one of the following is false about AIDS?

(A) HIV

(B) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

(C) T-lymphocytes

(D) HAV

39. Pigs are reservoirs of

(A) Hepatitis A

(B) Hepatitis B

(C) Hepatitis C

(D) Hepatitis E

40. Poisons produced by bacteria are known as

(A) toxoids

(B) toxins

(C) antitoxins

(D) antibodies

41. A disease in which the red blood cells are attacked is

(A) rabies

(B) amebic dysentery

(C) polio

(D) malaria

42. Germs that enter the body in milk may cause

(A) pneumonia

(B) tetanus

(C) mumps

(D) tuberculosis

43. A disease caused by the bite of an insect is

(A) typhus

(B) typhoid

(C) rabies

(D) measles

44. All of the following protect the body against the entrance of germs except

(A) tears

(B) mucous membranes

(C) ciliated cells

(D) red blood cells

45. All of the following are examples of antibodies except

(A) agglutinins

(B) opsonins

(C) lysins 

(D) antibiotics

46. An example of passive acquired immunity is

(A) vaccination against smallpox

(B) inculating dead germs against typhoid

(C) use of Salk vaccine

(D) inoculation of antitoxin in case of a puncture wound

47. A drug obtained from the bark of a tree is

(B) tincture of iodine

(D) sulfanilamide

(A) salvarsan

(C) quinine

48. All of the following are antibiotics except

(A) penicillin

(C) aureomycin

(B) streptomycin

(D) riboflavin

49. Penicillin was discovered by

(A) Ehrlich

(C) Waksman

(B) Fleming

(D) Koch

50. All of the following are types of germs except

(A) bacteria

(B) viruses

(C) protozoa

(D) toxins

51. All of the following are useful methods of providing protection against tuberculosis except

(A) Pneumothorax

(B) use of Schick text

(C) BCG

(D) rest

52. A chest X ray is useful in detecting a case of

(A) diphteria 

(B) typhoid

(C) tetanus

(D) typhus

53. Oysters grown in polluted water may contain the germs of

(A) typhoid

(B) typhus

(C) small pox

(D) scurvy

54. A test for syphilis is the

(A) Wassermann test

(B) Widal test

(C) Dick test

(D) Schick test

55. Antitoxins against diphtheria are obtained from

(A) the weakened virus

(B) horses

(C) a toxoid

(D) penicillium notatum

56. A disease caused by bacteria is

(A) small pox

(C) polio

(B) rabies

(D) tetanus

57. A person being vaccinated against smallpox receives

(A) live cowpox virus

(B) dead cowpox virus

(C) live smallpox virus

(D) dead smallpox virus

58. A disease in which the nerves are damaged is

(A) silicosis

(B) tetanus

(C) rheumatic fever

(D) polio

59. Viruses can be seen with the aid of the

(A) oil immersion microscope

(B) synchrotron

(C) electron microscope

(D) spectroscope

60. A disease in which the brain is affected is

(A) bubonic plague

(B) pellagra

(C) gonorrhea

(D) rabies

BIOLOGY BOOK-1 61

61. The Anopheles mosquito spreads

(A) typhoid (C) typhus

(B) malaria (D) amnesia

62. All of the following are effective was to control mosquitoes except

(A) spray insecticides

(B) spray antitoxin

(C) drain swamps

(D) remove rain barrels

63. AIDS may be spread by all of the following except

(A) a shared needle used in taking drugs

(B) a contaminated blood transfusion

(C) semen

(D) casual contact

64. The black plague is transmitted by a

(A) cockroach

(B) mosquito

(C) fly if

(D) flea

65. Hepatitis C can be treated effectively with

(A) liver injections

(C) chloromycetin

(B) alpha-interferon

(D) quinine

66. Two diseases caused by protozoa are

(A) malaria and yellow fever

(B) malaria and African sleeping sickness

(C) yellow fever and African sleeping sickness

(D) malaria and pneumonia

67. All of the following diseases are caused by worms except

(A) tichinosis

(B) hookworm

(C) tapeworm

(D) ringworm

68. Eating undercooked pork may lead to

(A) hookworm

(B) trichinosis

(C) pellagra

(D) scurvy

69. The leading cause of death at the present time is

(A) tuberculosis

(B) cancer

(C) heart diseases

(D) myxedema

70. All of the following are advisable as precautions against heart diseases except

 (A) exercise mildly every day

(B) reduce smoking

(C) increase ingestion of fats

 (D) relax

71. Rheumatic fever may result

(A) from an attack of chicken pox

(B) from an attack of measles

(C) from a dislocated joint

(D) in weakening of the valves of the heart

72. Effective methods of cancer treatment include the use of all of the following except

(A) cosmic rays

(B) X-rays

(C) surgery

(D)radium

73. A contagious disease is

(A) anemia

(B) cretinism

(C) acromegaly

(D) tuberculosis

74. Lyme disease is caused by the bite of a

(A) male deer

(B) female deer

(C) deer tick

(D) deer mouse

75. Linnaeus originated the system of classification which  employs

(A) bilateral symmetry

(B) binomial nomenclature

(C) continuity of germplasm

(D) conservation of energy

76. The division of biology that deals with classification is

(A) cytology

(B) histology

(C). botany

(D) taxonomy

77. Of the following, the most closely related group of organisms is kinown as a(n)

(A) genus

(B) species

(C) order 

(D) family

78. The number of protest phyla is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 7

79. Classification is based on all of the following except

(A) structure

(B) development

(C) evolutionary history

(D) size

80. The Latin words of the name given to a human being, Homo sapiens, include the

(A) genus and species

(B) genus and family

(C) family and order

(D) order and class

81. Of the following, the animal not included in the same genus as the house cat is the

(A) lion

(B) tiger

(C) dog

(D) leopard

82. Two invertebrate phyla are

(A) protozoa and thallophyta

(B) protozoa and mammal ia

(C) mollusks and arthropoda

(D) protoza and pteridophta

83. Monera include

(A) brown algae and bacteria

(B) blue-green algae and bacteria

(C) brown algae and protozoa

(D) blue-green algae and protozoa

ANSWERS

1. B  2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. C 20.  B 21. B 22. A 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. ' 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. B 41. D 42. D 43. A 44. D 45. D 46. D 47. C 48. 49. B 50. D 51. D 52. B 53. A 54. A 55. B 56. D 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. D 61. B 62. B 63. D 64. D 65. B 66. B 67. D 68. B 69. C 70. C 71. D 72. A 73. D 74. C 75. B 76. D 77. B 78. C 79. D 80. A 81. C 82. C 83. B 

Online MCQS Preparation (MCAT Biology Book-1) Chapter No.5

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Online MCQS Preparation (MCAT Biology Book-1) Chapter No.4

1. The "Cell Theory" was proposed by

(A) Robert Hooke & Leeuwenhock

(B) Grew and Malpighi

(C) Schleiden & Schwann

(D) Dutrochet & Brown

1. Which one of the following is called the energy currency of the cell?. (A) NAD

(B) FAD

(C) ATP

(D) FMN

3. The cells of cork were first studied in 1665 by

(A) Robert Brown

(B) Robert Hooke

(C) Dutrochet

(D) Schleiden

4. Cork cells were examined under his own microscope by

(A) De Duve

(B) Galileo

(C) Robert Hooke

(D) Dutrochet

5. Robert Brown was the person who

(A) Isolated lysosomes

(B) Discovered nucleus

(C) Observed cell wall

(D) Proposed cell theory

6. The symbol "S" (Svedberg) unit is more related to

(A) Solubility

(B) Sedimentation

(C) Discoverer

(D) Solid

7. The idea that cell is a structure containing nucleus with its surrounding fluid and an outer thin membrane was put forth by

(A) Robert Hooke

(B) Theodore Schwann

(C) Robert Brown

(D) Galileo

8. French Botanist Henri Dutrochet used which chemical to study cells in his experiment?

(A) Citric acid

(B) Acetic acid

(C) Nitric acid

(D) Succinic acid

9. The fluid-mosaic cell model of the cell membrane depicts it as

(A) a bilayer of lipid between two layers of proteins

(B) a bilayer of lipid with integral and peripheral proteins

(C) a bilayer of protein between two layers of lipid

(D) alternating layers of protein and lipid (jelly roll)

10. If a cell is viewed by microscope under low power and then under high power, and no fine adjustment is necessary to see it clearly, the microscope is considered

(A) Achromatic

(B) Bifocal

(C) Parfocal

(D) Unifocal

11. The internal structure of a eukaryotic cilium or the flagellum, no matter what the organism, has the same fibrillar arrangement, consisting of  pairs of tubules.

(A) 7 outer and 2 inner

(B) 9 outer and 2 inner

(C) I 1 outer and 2 inner

(D) 9 outer and I inner

12. The smallest unit possessing the capability to maintain life and to reproduce is

(A) an organ

(B) a cell

(C) DNA

(D) RNA

13. The various components of the cells including their organelles can be isolated by the process of cell

(A) Centrifugation

(B) Fractionation

(C) Homogenation

(D) Fragmentation

14. The various organelitles of.;cell can be separated by a process called

(A) Centrifugation

 (B) Distillation

(C) Filtration

(D) Chromatography

15. Which of these factors affect the movement of substances throUgh the piashia membrane?

(A) Size of diffusing particles

(B) Permeabilityofthe membrane 

(C) Membrane proteins

(D) All of the above

16. The cell membrane is composed of

(A) Glycoproteins

(B) Phosphoproteins

(C) Phospholipid & protein

(D) Proteins only

17. Cellulose is present in 1

(A) Cell wall

(C)Lysosome

(B) Ribosome

(D) Chromosomes

18., The diffusion of a dissolved substance through a differentially permeable membrane is

(A) Dialysis

(B) Osmosis

(C) Imbibition

(D) Brownian movement

19. Resides a small quantity of carbohydrate, the cell membrahe is chemically co posed of lipids and

(A) Chitin

(B) Proteins

(C) Cellulose

(D) Cutin

20. The substances which-ean easily pass through the cell membrane must be soluble in

(A) Lipid

(B) Water

(C) Alcohol

(D) Acetone

21. The shape and rigidity of a plant cell depends upon its

(A) Cell wall

(B) Cell membrane

(C) Cytoplasm

(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

22. "It is outermost layer of the animal cell. It is thin, delicate, elastic and capable of limited self repair." The statement is true for

(A) Cell wall

(13) Cell membrane

(C) Nuclear membrane

(D)Middle lamella

23. Cell membrane allows some of the soluble particles to pass through but prevents others. This property is most appropriate to the membrane, which is

(A) Impermeable

(B) Permeable

(C) Selectively permeable

(D) None of these

24. First formed wall between the adjacent cells is

(A) Primary cell wall

(B) Secondary cell wall

(C) Middle lamella

(D) Cytosol

25. The plasma membrane does not allow free passage of

(A) Sugar molecules

(B) Water molecules

(C) Ions

(D) Lipids soluble substances

26. Which one of the following surrounds an animal cell?

(A) Cell wall

(B) Plasma membrane

(C) Skin

 (D) Jelly

27. Which one of the following is the only way in which plant cells differ from animal cells?

(A) Plant cells all possess chlorophyll.

(B) Plant cells have a cellulose cell wall.

(C)-Plant cells are larger.

(D) Plant cells are not as specialised.

28. Of the following, which is not considered a membranous organelle?

(A) Ribosome

(B) Endoplasmic reticulum

(C) Golgi body

(D) Mitochondrion

29. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is mainly concerned with

(A) Proteolysis

(B) Fatty acid synthesis

(C) Protein synthesis

(D) Cholesterol synthesis

30. The soluble part of the cytoplasm contains about 90% water and is known as the

(A) Cystol

(B) Cytosol

(C) Lysosome

(D) Lysosole

31. Which one of the following performs the important role of intracellular transport?

(A) hndoplasmic reticulum

(B) Lysosome .

(C) Mitochondria

(D) Golgi complex

32. The site of the dark reaction of photogynthesis is

(A) Lysosome

(B) Mitochondria

(C) Cytoplasm

(D) Nucleus

33. The aqueous ground substance in the cell contains a variety of cell organelles, wastes and storage products. It is mostly true for

(A) Nucleus

(B) Cytoplasm

(C) Plasma membrane

(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

34. Glycolysis is an important metabolic process and occurs in

(A) Mitochondria

(B) Cristae

(C) Cell-membrane

 (D) Cytoplasm

35. Cellular organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes are called

(A) Lysosome

 (B) Microsomes

 (C) Ribosomes

(D) Mesosomes

36. Protein synthesis is dependent on

(A) Centerosome

 (C) Ribosome

(B) Lysosome

 (D) Plastids

37. In plants the Golgi apparatus is also referred to as

(A) Polysome

 (C) Lysosome

(B) Dictysome

 (D) Ribosome

38. Lysosomes contain such proteolytic enzymes which can digest phagocytosed food particles

(A) Lipids

(C) Proteins

(B) Starches

(D) Sugars

39. A structure formed by the attachment of many ribosomes with the same stretch of messenger RNA is termed as

(A) Polysome

(B) Dictysome

(C) Chromosome

(D) Lysosome

40. Which of the following functions as the site of protein synthesis?

(A) Ribosome

(B) Dictysome

(C) Chromosome

(D) Lysosome

41. Single membrane bounded organelle is

(A) Lysosomes

(B) Nucleus

(C) Chloroplast

(D) Mitochondrion

42. Ribosomes are composed of an equal amount of protein and

(A) DNA

(B) RNA

(C) Lipids

(D) Carbohydrates

43. Which of the following is not membranous organelle?

(A) Ribosomes

(B) Mitochondria

(C) Endoplasmic reticulum

(D) Lysosomes

44. Which one of the following detoxifies the harmful effect of drugs in the cell?

(A) Golgi apparatus

(B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(D) Mitochondria

 45. Cell secretions are processed and packed in

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum

(B) Golgi apparatus

(C) Mitochondria

(D) Centriole

46. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is synthesized in

(A) Nucleolus

(B) Nucleus

(C) Golgi apparatus

(D) Endoplasmic reticul 'm

47. Golgi apparatus in plants is also called

(A) Lysosome

(B) Ribosome

(C) Dictyosome

(D) Mesosome

48. In which one of the following is protein manufactured?

(A) Ribosome

(B) Mitochondrion

(C) Nucleolus

(D) Chromosome

49. Cellular"digestive" or "suicide" packages is a common description for

(A) Mitochondria

(B) Golgi zones or Golgi bodies

(C) Lysosomes

(D) Centrosomes

50. Which type of cell would probably be most appropriate to study lysosomes?

(A) Phagocytic white blood cells

(B) Nerve cell

(C) Mesophyll cell of leaf

(D) Muscle cell

51. Which of the following statements about ribosomes is correct?

(A) They are structurally different from free ribosomes.

(B) They are enclosed in their own membrane.

(C) They are concentrated in the cisternal space of rough ER.

(D) They are attached to cisternal surface.

 52. Which of the following is called the "Power house" of the cell?

(A) Nucleus

(B) Mitochondria

(C) Chloroplast

(D) Nucleolus

53. Cristae occur in

(A) Mitochondria

(B) Chloroplast

(C) Lysosomes

(D) Spherosomes

54. Each mitochondria is bounded v a double membrane of which

(A) The outer is folded into finger like folds and the inner is smooth

(B) The outer is smooth and the in. er is folded into finger like folds

(C) Both are smooth

(D) Both have folds

55. The inner matrix that bathes the cristae of mitochondria contains

(A) DNA and nucleoplasm

(B) Ribosomes and mRNA

(C) DNA, ribosomes and enzymes

(D) RNA and enzymes

56. Cristae are the membranous infolding in

(A) Plastids

(B) Golgi apparatus

(C) Lysosomes

(D) Mito .hondria

57. In a fern cell a typical mitochondrion is bounded by

(A) One membrane

(B) Two membrane

(C) Three membrane

(D) Four membrane

58 Mitochondrion is an organelle bounded by a double membrane. Which statement is true for its membranes?

(A) Inner is smooth

(B) Outer is smooth

(C) Both inner and outer are smooth

(D) No ie -if these

59. The cross section of each centriole indicates that it consists of

(A) 21 microtubules

(B) 23 microtubules

(C) 25 microtubules

(D) 27 microtubules

60. Centrioles in higher plants are

(A) Small

(B) Two in number

(C) Large

(D) Absent

61. Which one of the following contains most adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

(A) Ribosome

(B) Mitochondrion

(C) Nucleolus

(D) Chromosome

62. Which one of the following cells has the most mitochondria?

(A) Sperm cell

(B) Muscle cell

(C) Neuron

(D) Liver cell

63. Which one of the following is present in the vacuole of a plant cell?

(A) Cytoplasm

(B) Endoplasm

(C) Protoplasm

(D) Cell sap

64. The function of mitochondria in a cell is to

(A) release energy

(B) contain chromosomes

(C) produce proteins

(D) contain genes

65. Which of the following cell organelles or structures produces chemical energy via the electron transport chain?

(A) Mitochondria

(B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER)

(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (sER)

(D) Peroxisomes

66. Which of the following is highly developed in a cell that is metabolically very active and has a high energy (ATP) requirement?

(A) Lysosomes

(B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(C) Golgi apparatus

(D) Mitochondria

67. Which of the following organelles is specialized in photosynthesis?

(A) Chloroplast

(B) Chromoplast

(C) Leucoplast

(D) Mitochondria

68. A heap of membranes in the inner part of the chloroplast of a green cell is called a

(A) Crista

(B) Granum

(C) Murein

(D) Golgi Complex

69. The grana is the site where

(A) Oxygen is stored

(B) Food is stored

(C) Sunlight is trapped

(D) CO2 is stored

70. Membrane bounded pigment containing bodies present in the plant cell are

(A) Centrioles

(B) Plastids

(C) Dictysomes

(D) Lysosomes

71. Which statement about plastids is true?

(A) They are surrounded by a single membrane.

(B) They are the powerhouse of cell.

(C) They are found in all organisms.

(D) They contain DNA and ribosomes.

(D) Golgi complex

72. In 1831, nucleus was first observed in the cells of orchids under the microscope by

(A) Robert Hooke

(C) Robert Brown

(B) Schwann

(D) Dutrochet

73. The nucleus in the animal cell was first of all seen by

(A) Schleidens

(B) Schwann

(C) Schultz

(D) Robert Brown

74. Nucleus is composed largely of

(A) rRNA

(B) Amino acid and tRNA

(C) RNA and DNA

(D) mRNA and tRNA

75. In plant cells the nucleus lies close to the cell-membrane due to the presence of

(A) Large size of nucleus

(B) Large central vacuole

(C) Concentrated cytoplasm

(D) Large endoplasmic reticulum

76. In mammalian cell the term protoplasm is applied for

(A) Nucleus and nucleolus

(B) Ribosome and nucleolus

(C) Nucleus and cytoplasm

(D) Cell membrane and cytoplasm

77. Which one of the following cells has no nucleus?

(A) Ovum

(B) White blood cell

(C) Sperm

(D) Red blood cell

78. Which statement about the nuclear envelope is not true?

(A) It has pores.

(B) It is a double membrane structure.

(C) Its inner membrane bears ribosomes.

(D) RNA and some proteins pass through it.

79. Chromosome is made of

(A) Polypeptides

(B) Lipoprotein

(C) Phospholipid

(D) Nucleoprotein

80. The chromosomes are composed of DNA and

(A) RNA

(B) Genes

(C) Proteins

(D) Lipids

81. Number of chromosomes in potato is

(A) 47

(B) 49

(C) 46

(D) 48

82. Which of the following is not a- membrane bound structure?

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum

(B) Chromosome

(C) Lysosome

(D) Mitochondrion

83. Which one of the following is the part of the cell that controls a single inherited factor?

(A) Gene

(B) Chromosome

(C) Gamete

(D) Nucleus

84. Which of the following pairs of structure-function is mismatched?

(A) Ribosomes; protein synthesis

(B) Nucleolus; ribosome production

(C) Golgi; muscle contraction

(D) Lysosome; intracellular digestion

85. The entire cell wall of the prokaryotic cell is often regarded as a single huge molecule known as

(A) Cellulose

 (C) Nucleoprotein

(B) Murein

 (D) Lipoprotein

86. In Eukaryotic cell, the Kreb's cycle is completed in tiny structures called

(A) Mitochondria

(B) Lysosome

 (C) Fndoplasmic reticulum

(D) Chromosome

87. Normal size of Prokaryotic ribosome is

(A) 90S

 (B) 70S

 (C) 80S

(D) 60S

88. The 80S particles of Eukaryotic ribosomes are formed by

 (A) 50S and 705

 (B) 30S and 50S

 (C) 20S and 40S

(D) 40S and 60S

89. The cell-wall of prokaryotic cell is made up of

 (A) Cellulose

 (B) Maltose

 (C) Murein

(D) Lactic acid

90. Ali of the following are characteristic of prokaryotic cells EXCEPT:

 (A) Cell wall complex

 (B) Plasma membrane

 (C) Nuclear area

(D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

91. Eukaryotes may contain

(A) a Golgi complex

 (B) an endoplasmic reticulum

 (C) chloroplasts

 (D) All of these

 92. The movement of material against concentration gradient through cell membrane occurs by which one of the following process?

(A) Cohesion

 (C) Evaporation

(B) Passive transport

 (D) Active transport

93. The impulses are transmitted from one part of the body to the other by means of

 (A) Muscle cells

 (B) Nerve cells

(C) Gland cells

(D) Skin cells

94. Which of the following are specialized to contract and relax?

(A) Gland-cells

 (B) Red-black-cells

(C) Muscle-cells

 (D) Nerve-cells

 95. Food in plants is transported by

 (A) Phloem

 (B) Parenchyma

 (C) ScIerenchyma

 (D) Xylem

96. Unlike facilitated diffusion, active transport is

 (A) sensitive to the concentration of the component on only one side of the membrane (the loading side)

 (B) insensitive to the concentration of the component on the other side of the membrane

(C) known to saturate at relatively low component concentration

 (D) All of the above

97. Galileo devised microscope in

(A) 1600 AD

(B) 1610 AD

(C) 1665 AD

 (D) 1670 AD

98. Robert Brown saw the cell nucleus in 1831 in the

(A) Rat

(B) Rose

 (C) Orchids

 (D) Euglena

99. In plants surplus of food is stored in the cells called

 (A) Sclerenchymatous

 (B) Parenchymatous

(C) Chlorenchymatous

 (D) Mesenchymatous

 100. The primary cell wall of plants is composed of cellulose along with some deposition of pectin and (A) Cutin

(B) Suberin

(C) Lignin

(D) Silica

101. To the rough form of the endoplasmic reticulum are found attached the

 (A) Polysomes

(B) Lysosomes

(C) Ribosomes

(D) Ergosomes

 102. The cells of some lower plants contain

(A) Large vacuoles

(C) Centrioles

(B) Aster

(D) Lysosomes

103 The animal cells which exhibit phagocytic activity possess abundant

 (A) Polysomes

 (B) Lysosomes

 (C) Ribosomes

(D) Ergosomes

104 In living cells ribosomes help in synthesizing

(A) Proteins

 (B) Carbohydrates

 (C) Fats.

 (D) Acids

105 Antophagy is the process of destruction of superfluous, faulty or aging cell organelles with the help of digestive enzymes of

 (A) Mitochondria

 (B) Lysosomes

 (C) Ribosomes

 (D) Chromosomes

106 The leucoplasts are the plastids which are

(A) Red

(B) Yellow

 (C) Colourless

 (D) Orange

107 The normal number of chromosomes in the frog cells is

(A) 16

 (B) 26

 (C) 14

 (D) 20

108 The entire cell wall of the proparyotic cell is often regarded as a single huge molecule known as

(A) Cellulose

 (B) Murein

(C) Nucleoprotein

 (D) Lipoprotein

109 The spiral structure in spirogyra is the

(A) Spireme

 (B) Chloroplast

 (C) Chromatin

 (D) Nucleus

110• The only one of the structures found in a spirogyra is

(A) a flagellum

(B) on eyespot

 (C) a pyrenoid

 (D) cilia .

111. ATP is a chemical that is essential for

 (A) digestion

 (B) appetite

 (C) absorption

(D) oxidation

112. Enzymes are useful

 (A) only during digestion

(B) only in respiration

 (C) in both digestion and respiration

 (D) only during ingestion

 113. All of the following are organelles except the

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum

 (B) Mitochondria

 (C) Ribosome

 (D) Ultracentrifuge

 114. The life activity concerned with taking in of food is known as

 (A) ingestion

(B) digestion

 (C) secretion

 (D) excretion

115. The life activity dealing with the stability of the organism's chemical makeup under its constantly changing environment is

(A) respiration

(B) irritability

(C) reproduction

 (D) regulation

 116. DNA is found in the cell's

 (A) vacuole

 (B) nucleolus

 (C) nucleus

 (D) ribosomes

 117. All of the following have recently given us greater knowledge about the cell except

 (A) the electron microscope

 (B) the phase microscope

 (C) laser beams

(D) the single-lens microscope

118. All of the following scientists studied cells except

(A) Hooke

 (B) Van Leeuwenheok

 (C) Schwann

 (D) Linnaeus

119. The nucleus contains all of the following structures except

 (A) mitochondria

 (B) chromatin

 (C) genes

 (D) nucleolus

120. The most abundant substance in protoplasm is

 (A) protein

 (B) fat

(C) water

 (D) minerals

121. The conversion of non-living material into living protoplasm is known as

(A) assimilation

(B) respiration

 (C) reproduction

 (D) digestion

122. A cell obtains energy during the process of

 (A) ingestion

 (B) respiration

 (C) irritability

(D) excretion

123. Viruses resemble living things because they

 (A) circulate

 (B) move

 (C) reproduce

 (D) are crystalline

124.  Animal cells do not possess

 (A) a cell membrane

(B) a cell wall

(C) cytoplasm

(D) a nucleus

125.  An amoeba moves by means of

(A) cilia

 (B) pseudopods

 (C) pseudonyms

 (D) flagella

126.  Both the amoeba and the paramecium possess a (an)

 (A) contractile vacuole

(B) anal spot

 (C) oral groove

 (D) trichocysts

127. Digestion in one-celled animals takes place in the

(A) cyst

 (B) contractile vacuole

(C) food vacuole

(D) pellicle

128. Paramecium may reproduce by

 (A) binary fission only

(B) conjugation only

 (C) both binary fission and conjugation

(D) budding only

129. Dissolved gases pass in and out of paramecium through the

 (A) nuclear membrane

 (B) cell membrane

 (C) food vacuole

 (D) micronucleus

130. Plant and animal cells are alike in possessing

 (A) chlorophyll

(B) ehloroplast

 (C) cell wall (D) cell membrane

131.  The euglena is different from the ameba and paramecium in possessing (A) cytoplasm

 (B) a nucleus

 (C) a cell membrane

(D) chloroplasts

ANSWERS

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. B. 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. A 41. A 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. A

Online MCQS Preparation (MCAT Biology Book-1) Chapter No.4

By: Unknown on: 07:56

Online MCQS Preparation (MCAT Biology Book-1) Chapter No.3

Choose the correct answer from the four answer choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), given with each question.

1. Enzymes are composed mainly of

(A) Polysaccharides (C) Proteins

(B) Lipids (D) Nucleic acids

2. The enzyme (catalyst) for DNA replication is

(A) DNA

(B) mRNA

(C) DNA polymerase

(D) RNA polymerase

3. The enzyme which catalyzes the replication of the leading strand during DNA replication in E. coli is

(A) RNA polymerase

(B) reverse transcriptase

(C) DNA polymerase 11

(D) DNA polymerase III

4. The enzyme which catalyzes the replication of the lagging strand during DNA replication in E. coil is

(A) reverse transcriptase

(B) DNA polymerase I

(C) DNA polymerase II

(D) DNA polymerase III

5. The enzyme (catalyst) for RNA synthesis in prokaryotes is

(A) DNA

(B) mRNA

(C) DNA polymerase

(D) RNA polymerase

6. The enzyme (catalyst) for protein synthesis in prokaryotes is

(A) DNA

(B) mRNA

(C) RNA polymerase

(D) part of the structure of the ribosome

7. Protein catalyst for chemical reactions in biological system are

(A) Enzyme

(B) Hormones

(C) Vitamin

(D) Both hormones and coenzyme

8. The first enzyme diastase was isolated by

(A) Macleod and Avery

(B) McCarty

(C) Payen and Persoz

(D) Hershey and Chase

9. A single enzyme may break down in a second

(A) 100 molecules of the substance

(B), 10,000 molecules of the substance

(C) 100,000 molecules of the substance

(D) 1000 molecules of the substance

10. Payen and Persoz isolated the first ever enzyme called

(A) Maltase

(B) Sucrase

(C) Diastase

(D) Lactase

11. The first enzyme isolated in pure form by Payen and Persoz was

(A) Hydrogenase

(B) Glucase

(C) Diastase

(D) Phosphatase

12. Enzymes are chemically

(A) Carbohydrates

(B) Proteins

(C) Lipids

(D) Waxes

13. Enzymes are catalysts, after the completion of a reaction they are chemically

(A) Changed

(B) Unchanged

(C) Substitute

(D) Reconstitute

14. The first enzyme diastase was isolated by

(A) Hershey and Chase

(B) Payen and Persoz

 (C) Mcleod and McCarty

(D), Watson and Crick

15. Which statement about enzymes is not true?

(A) They consist of proteins, with or without a non-protein part

(B) They change the rate of catalyzed reaction.

(C) They are sensitive to heat.

(D) They are non-specific in their action.

16. Which of the following is not a true statement about enzymes?

(A) They are catalysts.

(B) They are produced by ductless glands.

(C) They increase the rate of chemical change.

(D) They act in only one type of reaction.

17. Which of the following enzymes is found in pancreatic juice?

(A) Lipase

(B) Maltase

(C) Ptyalin

(D) Pepsin

18. Which of the following is the best definition of an enzyme?

(A) A complex substance which can only act in the body at a particular temperature

(B) A complex substance which must be present in the diet of animals in order that they remain healthy.

(C) A complex organic compound which accelerates the growth rate in plants.

(D) A complex organic compound which speeds up a particular reaction in the bodies of animals and plants.

 19. Which one of the following digestive juices does not contain enzymes?

(A) Pancreatic juice

(C) Saliva

(B) Gastric juice

(D) Bile juice

20. Which one of the following is tilt organic material of an enzyme?

(A) Carbohydrate

(B) Vitamin

(C) Protein

(D) Fat

21. The substances on which the enzymes act are called

(A) Co-enzymes

(C) Substrates

(B) Activators

(D) Inhibitors

22. If more substrate to an already occurring enzymatic reaction is added, more enzyme activity is seen because

(A) then is probably more substrate present than there is enzyme.

(B) then is probably more enzyme available than there is substrate.

(C) Then is probably more product present than there in either substrate or enzyme.

(D) the enzyme substrate complex is probably failing to form during the reaction.

23. If you add more substrate to already occurring enzymatic reaction and it has no effect on the rate of reaction, what is the form given for this situation?

(A) Saturation

(C) Composition

(B) Desaturation

(D) Inhibition

24. Which of the following is not true for protein

(A) Enzyme

(C) Co-enzyme

(B) Hormone

(D)

25. It is difficult to study enzyme action in

(A) Vitro

(C) Vitro and Vivo

Desaturation Inhibition true for protein? Hormone Hemoglobin action in

(B) Vivo

(D) None of these

26. Which of the following factors affect the rate of enzyme action

(A) enzyme concentration

(B) Substrate concentration

(C) temperature

(D) All of these

27. Optimum pH value of pepsin is

(A) 1.10

(B) 1.50

(C) 1.70

(D) 2.00

28. Optimum pH value of sucrase is

(A) 1.90

(B) 2.10

(C) 3.50

(D) 4.50

29. The rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction

(A) is constant under all conditions

(B) decreases as substrate concentration increases

(C) cannot be measured

(D) can be reduced by inhibition

30. What is the optimum pH value of Enterokinase?

(A) 2.30

(B) 2.70

(C) 4.20

(D) 5.50

31. What is the optimum pH value of salivary amylase?

(A) 4.50

(B) 4.90

(C) 5.80

(D) 6.80

32. The active site of an enzyme

(A) never changes

(B) forms no chemical bond with substrate

(C) determines, by its structure, the specificity of thee enzyme

(D) looks like a lump projecting from the surface of an enzyme

33. Whose optimum pH value ranges between 7.00 - 8.00?

(A) Sucrase

(B) Chymotrypsin

(C) Catalase

(D) Pepsin

34. Which of the following enzymes has optimum pH value 7.60?

(A) Catalase

(B) Sucrase

(C) Salivary amylase

(D) Arginase

35. Whose optimum pH value is 9.00?

(A) Pancreatic lipase

(B) Pepsin

(C) Enterokinase

(D) Chymotrypsin

36. Whose optimum pH value is 9.70?

(A) Pancreatic lipase

(B) Sucrase

(C) Arginase

(D) Salivary amylase

37. Salivary amylase works best at___ in the buccal cavity.

(A) pH 6.6

(B) pH 6.9

(C) pH 7.5

(D) pH 8.1

38. Pepsin functions best in the stomach at

(A) pH 1.5

(B) pH 2.0

(C) pH 2.5

(D) pH 3.2

1. C 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. D 16. " B 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. C 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. D 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. B 

Online MCQS Preparation (MCAT Biology Book-1) Chapter No.3

By: Unknown on: 07:53